Hebrews 7:11 
Context| NET © | So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood – for on that basis 1 the people received the law – what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron’s order? |
| NIV © | If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the law was given to the people), why was there still need for another priest to come—one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron? |
| NASB © | Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? |
| NLT © | And finally, if the priesthood of Levi could have achieved God’s purposes––and it was that priesthood on which the law was based––why did God need to send a different priest from the line of Melchizedek, instead of from the line of Levi and Aaron? |
| MSG © | If the priesthood of Levi and Aaron, which provided the framework for the giving of the law, could really make people perfect, there wouldn't have been need for a new priesthood like that of Melchizedek. |
| BBE © | Now if it was possible for things to be made complete through the priests of the house of Levi (for the law was given to the people in connection with them), what need was there for another priest who was of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron? |
| NRSV © | Now if perfection had been attainable through the levitical priesthood—for the people received the law under this priesthood—what further need would there have been to speak of another priest arising according to the order of Melchizedek, rather than one according to the order of Aaron? |
| NKJV © | Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron? |
| KJV | therefore <3767> perfection <5050> by <1223> the Levitical <3020> priesthood <2420>_, (for <1063> under <1909> it <846> the people <2992> what <5101> further <2089> need <5532> [was there] that another <2087> priest <2409> after <2596> the order <5010> of Melchisedec <3198>_, and <2532> not <3756> after <2596> the order <5010> of Aaron <2>_? |
| NASB © | Now <3767> if <1487> perfection <5050> was through <1223> the Levitical <3020> priesthood <2420> (for on the basis <1909> of it the people <2992> received <3549> the Law <3549> ), what <5101> further <2089> need <5532> was there for another <2087> priest <2409> to arise <450> according <2596> to the order <5010> of Melchizedek <3198> , and not be designated <3004> according <2596> to the order <5010> of Aaron ?<2> |
| GREEK | |
| NET © [draft] ITL | So <3767> if <1487> perfection <5050> had in fact been possible through <1223> the Levitical <3020> priesthood <2420> – for <1063> on <1909> that basis <846> the people <2992> received the law <3549> – what <5101> further <2089> need <5532> would there have been for another <2087> priest <2409> to arise <450> , said <3004> to be in <2596> the order <5010> of Melchizedek <3198> and <2532> not <3756> in <2596> Aaron’s <2> order ?<5010> |
| NET © | So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood – for on that basis 1 the people received the law – what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron’s order? |
| NET © Notes |
1 tn Grk “based on it.” |
