Texts Notes Verse List Exact Search
Results 21 - 40 of 136 for husband (0.001 seconds)
Jump to page: Prev 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Next
  Discovery Box
(0.35) (Num 5:19)

tn The word “other” is implied, since the woman would not be guilty of having sexual relations with her own husband.

(0.35) (Lev 21:7)

tn The pronoun “he” in this clause refers to the priest, not the former husband of the divorced woman.

(0.35) (Joe 1:8)

sn Heb “the husband of her youth.” The woman described here may already be married, so the reference is to the death of a husband rather than a fiancé (a husband-to-be). Either way, the simile describes a painful and unexpected loss to which the national tragedy Joel is describing may be compared.

(0.35) (Hos 2:7)

tn Heb “to my man, the first.” Many English translations (e.g., KJV, NAB, NRSV, TEV) take this as “my first husband,” although this implies that there was more than one husband involved. The text refers to multiple lovers, but these were not necessarily husbands.

(0.30) (Joh 1:13)

tn The third phrase, οὐδὲ ἐκ θελήματος ἀνδρός (oude ek thelēmatos andros), means much the same as the second one. The word here (ἀνηρ, anēr) is often used for a husband, resulting in the translation “or a husband’s decision,” or more generally, “or of any human volition whatsoever.” L. Morris may be right when he sees here an emphasis directed at the Jewish pride in race and patriarchal ancestry, although such a specific reference is difficult to prove (John [NICNT], 101).

(0.30) (Jer 44:19)

sn According to Jer 7:18-19, it was not only with the full knowledge and approval of their husbands but also with their active participation. Most commentaries find an allusion here to the fact that a woman’s vow had to have her husband’s conscious approval to have any validity (cf. Num 30:7-16 and see the reference to the vow in v. 17).

(0.30) (Col 3:18)

tn The article τοῖς (tois) with ἀνδράσιν (andrasin, “husbands”) has been translated as a possessive pronoun (“your”); see ExSyn 215.

(0.30) (1Co 7:16)

tn Grk “will save your wife?” The meaning is obviously that the husband would be the human agent in leading his wife to salvation.

(0.30) (Joh 4:17)

tn The word order in Jesus’ reply is reversed from the woman’s original statement. The word “husband” in Jesus’ reply is placed in an emphatic position.

(0.30) (Pro 31:23)

tn The form is the Niphal participle of יָדַע (yadaʿ); it means that her husband is “known.” The point is that he is a prominent person, respected in the community. While the description of the wife’s work is given in the past tense (primarily through perfect and preterite verbs), the husband is described in the present tense with a participle. Her husband’s status has resulted to some degree from her faithful work and was not confined to the past but continues into the present time frame of the passage.

(0.30) (Pro 7:19)

tn Heb “the man.” The LXX interpreted it as “my husband,” taking the article to be used as a possessive. Many English versions do the same.

(0.30) (Psa 128:3)

sn The metaphor of the fruitful vine pictures the wife as fertile; she will give her husband numerous children (see the next line).

(0.30) (Psa 78:63)

tn Heb “were not praised,” that is, in wedding songs. The young men died in masses, leaving no husbands for the young women.

(0.30) (Rut 2:1)

tn Heb “and [there was] to Naomi a relative, to her husband, a man mighty in substance, from the clan of Elimelech, and his name [was] Boaz.”

(0.30) (Rut 1:3)

tn Heb “And Elimelech, the husband of Naomi, died.” The vav (ו) functions in a consecutive sense (“then”), but the time-frame is not explicitly stated.

(0.30) (Rut 1:11)

tn Heb “Do I still have sons in my inner parts that they might become your husbands?” Again Naomi’s rhetorical question expects a negative answer.

(0.30) (Gen 39:17)

sn That Hebrew slave. Now, when speaking to her husband, Potiphar’s wife refers to Joseph as a Hebrew slave, a very demeaning description.

(0.28) (1Co 11:3)

tn Or “the husband is the head of his wife.” The same Greek words translated “man” and “woman” can mean, as determined by context, “husband” and “wife” respectively. Such an approach is followed by NAB, TEV, NRSV, and NLT (with some variations).

(0.28) (Jer 31:32)

sn The metaphor of Yahweh as husband and Israel as wife has been used already in Jer 3 and is implicit in the repeated allusions to idolatry as spiritual adultery or prostitution. The best commentary on the faithfulness of God to his “husband-like” relation is seen in the book of Hosea, especially in Hos 1-3.

(0.28) (Isa 54:4)

tn Another option is to translate, “the disgrace of our widowhood” (so NRSV). However, the following context (vv. 6-7) refers to Zion’s husband, the Lord, abandoning her, not dying. This suggests that an אַלְמָנָה (ʾalmanah) was a woman who had lost her husband, whether by death or abandonment.



TIP #06: On Bible View and Passage View, drag the yellow bar to adjust your screen. [ALL]
created in 0.06 seconds
powered by bible.org