Has the LORD struck her as he struck down those who struck her? Has she been killed as those were killed who killed her?
Like the striking of Him who has struck them, has He struck them? Or like the slaughter of His slain, have they been slain?
Has the LORD punished Israel in the same way he has punished her enemies? No, for he devastated her enemies,
Has GOD knocked them to the ground as he knocked down those who hit them? Oh, no. Were they killed as their killers were killed? Again, no.
Is his punishment like the punishment of those who overcame him? or are his dead as great in number as those he put to the sword?
Has he struck them down as he struck down those who struck them? Or have they been killed as their killers were killed?
Has He struck Israel as He struck those who struck him? Or has He been slain according to the slaughter of those who were slain by Him?
|NET © [draft] ITL|
|NET © Notes||
1 tn The Hebrew text reads literally, “Like the striking down of the one striking him down does he strike him down?” The meaning of the text is unclear, but this may be a rhetorical question, suggesting that Israel has not experienced divine judgment to the same degree as her oppressors. In this case “the one striking down” refers to Israel’s oppressors, while the pronoun “him” refers to Israel. The subject of the final verb (“does he strike down”) would then be God, while the pronoun “him” would again refer to Israel.
2 tn The Hebrew text reads literally, “Or like the killing of his killed ones is he killed?” If one accepts the interpretation of the parallel line outlined in the previous note, then this line too would contain a rhetorical question suggesting that Israel has not experienced destruction to the same degree as its enemies. In this case “his killed ones” refers to the one who struck Israel down, and Israel would be the subject of the final verb (“is he killed”).