(What does "he ascended" mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions?
(Now this expression, "He ascended," what does it mean except that He also had descended into the lower parts of the earth?
Notice that it says "he ascended." This means that Christ first came down to the lowly world in which we live.
It's true, is it not, that the One who climbed up also climbed down, down to the valley of earth?
(Now this, He went up, what is it but that he first went down into the lower parts of the earth?
(When it says, "He ascended," what does it mean but that he had also descended into the lower parts of the earth?
(Now this, "He ascended" ––what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth?
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|NET © Notes||
1 tc The majority of
2 tc The Western texttype (D* F G it) lacks the plural noun μέρη (merh, “regions”); the shorter reading cannot be dismissed out of hand since it is also supported by Ì46 (which often has strong affinities, however, with the Western text). The inclusion of the word has strong external support from important, early
3 tn Grk “to the lower parts of the earth.” This phrase has been variously interpreted: (1) The traditional view understands it as a reference to the underworld (hell), where Jesus is thought to have descended in the three days between his death and resurrection. In this case, “of the earth” would be a partitive genitive. (2) A second option is to translate the phrase “of the earth” as a genitive of apposition: “to the lower parts, namely, the earth” (as in the present translation). Many recent scholars hold this view and argue that it is a reference to the incarnation. (3) A third option, which also sees the phrase “of the earth” as a genitive of apposition, is that the descent in the passage occurs after the ascent rather than before it, and refers to the descent of the Spirit at Pentecost (cf. Acts 4:11-16). Support for this latter view is found in the intertestamental and rabbinic use of Ps 68:18 (quoted in v. 8), which is consistently and solely interpreted as a reference to Moses’ ascent of Mt. Sinai to “capture” the words of the law. The probability, therefore, is that the comments here in v. 9 reflect a polemic against the interpretation of Ps 68:18 in certain circles as a reference to Moses. See W. H. Harris, The Descent of Christ (AGJU 32), 46-54; 171-204.