Am I saying these things only on the basis of common sense, 1 or does the law not say this as well?
Do I say this merely from a human point of view? Doesn’t the Law say the same thing?
I am not speaking these things according to human judgment, am I? Or does not the Law also say these things?
And this isn’t merely human opinion. Doesn’t God’s law say the same thing?
I'm not just sounding off because I'm irritated. This is all written in the scriptural law.
Am I talking as a man? does not the law say the same?
Do I say this on human authority? Does not the law also say the same?
Do I say these things as a mere man? Or does not the law say the same also?
|NET © [draft] ITL|
Am I saying
only on the basis of
does the law
|NET © Notes||
1 tn Or “only according to human authority”; Grk “saying these things according to men.”