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(1.00)Heb 10:21

and since we have a great priest 1  over the house of God,

(0.50)Heb 7:11

So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood – for on that basis 1  the people received the law – what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron’s order?



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